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Cisco CCNA® 3.0 (Cisco® Certified Network Associate 3.0) Exam 640-607 Version 6.0 Jun. 17th, 2003 640-607 2 21certify.com
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Q.1 You can configure PPP on which of the following types of physical interfaces? (Choose two) A. Ethernet B. Token Ring C. Synchronous Serial D. Asynchronous Serial Answers: C, D. Explanation: Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) provides router-to-router and host-network connections over synchronous and asynchronous circuits. PPP was designed to work with several network layer protocols, including IP and IPX. It also has built in security features such PAP (Password Authentication Protocol) and CHAP (Challenged Handshake Authentication Protocol). Incorrect Answers: A: Ethernet is a LAN (Local Area Network) architecture. It uses either a star or a bus topology to exchange data. B: Token Ring is a type of network in which the computers are arranged in a circular fashion. These computers pass a token between each other. This token is used to communicate data. Steve McQuerry. Interconnecting Cisco Network Devices. (Cisco Press: 2000) page 373. Buy Steve's CCNA book to go with this study guide
Q.2 Frame Tagging is used to interconnect multiple switches and to maintain VLAN information as traffic goes between switches. Which of the following statements about the Frame Tagging are true? (Choose two) A. A Filtering table is developed for each switch. B. Frame Tagging defines a unique user defined ID to each frame. C. A unique identifier is placed in the header of each frame as it is forwarding between switches. D. Frame Tagging is technique that examines particular information about each frame based on user-defined offsets. Answer: B, C. Explanation: Frame tagging or frame identification uniquely assigns a user-defined ID to each frame. This is sometimes referred to as VLAN ID. Cisco created frame tagging to be used when an Ethernet frame traverses a trunked link. Steve McQuerry. Interconnecting Cisco Network Devices. (Cisco Press: 2000) pages 186-187. 640-607 4 Buy Steve's CCNA book to go with this study guide
Q.3 Your company is having trouble connecting a Cisco router to a Nortel router using Frame Relay. What is the default encapsulation type for Frame Relay on a Cisco router? A. HDLC B. PPP C. IETF D. Cisco E. ANSI Answer: D. Explanation: Cisco is the default encapsulation type for Frame Relay on a Cisco router. Note: For a router to operate in a Frame Relay network the serial interface must be configured for Frame Relay Encapsulations. There are two types of Frame Relay encapsulation types: Cisco and IETF. When you are connecting to a non Cisco router the frame relay encapsulation type is IETF. Incorrect Answers A. HDLC stands for High level Data Link Control. This is the encapsulation type on synchronous serial links. B. Point to Point Protocol (PPP). This provides for host to network and router to router connections over synchronous and asynchronous circuits. C. IETF should be used in this scenario. However, the default Frame Relay encapsulation type on Cisco routers is Cisco. E. Cisco routers support three types of LMIs: Cisco, ANSI and Q933a. This question is looking for the default encapsulation type. Steve McQuerry. Interconnecting Cisco Network Devices. (Cisco Press: 2000) pages 418-420, 416, and 373374. Buy Steve's CCNA book to go with this study guide
Q.4 The IP address 131.107.0.0 is a class B address. What is the range of binary values for the first octet in this address class? A. 10000000-11111111 B. 00000000-10111111 C. 10000000-10111111 D. 10000000-11011111 E. 11000000-11101111 640-607 5 21certify.com Answer: C Explanation: Class B addresses have a range of 128 – 191. One of these numbers would appear in the first octet of a Class B address. 128 and 191 are converted to binary below: Therefore the first octet converted to binary is 10000000 – 10111111. Incorrect Answers A: The 10000000-11111111 range, 128-255, does not define an address class. B: The 00000000-10111111 range, 0-191, does not define an address class. D: The 10000000-11011111 range, 128-223, does not define an address class. E: The 11000000-11101111 range, 192-239, does not define an address class. Steve McQuerry. Interconnecting Cisco Network Devices. (Cisco Press: 2000) pages 220 – 223. Buy Steve's CCNA book to go with this study guide
Q.5 TCP is a connection-oriented protocol. An advantage of operating in a connection-oriented environment is that a connection is established between both ends before the transfer of information can begin. What is a disadvantage of using a connection-oriented protocol such as TCP? A. Packet acknowledgement may add overhead. B. Packets are not tagged with sequence numbers. C. Loss or duplication of data packets is more likely to occur. D. The application layer must assume responsibility for correct sequencing of the data packets. Answer: A. Explanation: One of the benefits of a connection-orientated protocol is that there is a guarantee of delivery of data. This guarantee is provided as the two communicating exchange PDUs during transmission and if an acknowledgement is not received then the data is retransmitted. As can be imagined this exchange of PDUs can cause an increase in overhead. Incorrect Answers: B: Sequence numbers are added to insure correct order C: Packet loss, duplication, and ordering are handled by connection-oriented protocols. D: The transport layer (such as TCP) handles sequencing. Steve McQuerry. Interconnecting Cisco Network Devices. (Cisco Press: 2000) pages 29-30. 640-607 6 Last Chance get your copy now...
Q.6 Switches have three primary modes to handle frame switching. Which one of these modes looks at the destination address and then immediately forwards the frame to the destination? A. CSMA/CD B. FULL DUPLEX C. CUT THROUGH D. HALF DUPLEX E. FRAGMENTATION F. STORE AND FORWARD Answer: C. Explanation: In cut-through mode, the switch checks the destination address (DA) as soon as the header is received and immediately begins forwarding the frame. Depending on the network transport protocol being used (connection or connectionless orientate), there is a significant decrease in latency from input port to output port. The delay in cut-through switching remains constant regardless of the size of the frame, because this switching mode starts to forward the frame as soon as the switch reads the DA. Incorrect Answers: A: CSMA/CD is not a method of transporting frames. Rather it is a set of rules that are used to determine how network devices will respond to two different devices attempting to communicate on a data channel at the same time. B: Full duplex refers to how two switches communicate with each other. In this case, there is a transmission of data in two directions at the same time. D: Half duplex refers to how two switches communicate with each other. With half duplex the communication can only be in one direction and if not a collision will occur. E: This is not a method of frame communication. F: In store and forward the entire frame must first be received before it can be forwarded on. Steve McQuerry. Interconnecting Cisco Network Devices. (Cisco Press: 2000) pages 162-5.
Q.7 Which of the following are Application layer protocols that use TCP/IP? (Choose three.) A. ARP B. HTTP C. SMTP D. FTP E. ICMP Answer: B, C, D 640-607 7 21certify.com Explanation: There are a number of TCP/IP application layer protocols. The common TCP/IP application layer protocols include: FTP, Telnet, SMTP, and HTTP. Incorrect Answers: A. ARP operates at the Internetwork layer of the TCP/IP protocol stack. E. ICMP operates at the Internetwork layer of the TCP/IP protocol stack. Steve McQuerry. Interconnecting Cisco Network Devices. (Cisco Press: 2000) pages 206 – 215.
Q.8 Two types of frame tagging are ISL and 802.lQ. What is the purpose of Frame Tagging? A. They provide best path determination. B. They allow the exchange of filtering tables. C. They specify different implementation of the Spanning-Tree Protocol. D. They provide inter-switch VLAN communication. Answer: D Explanation: The purpose of frame tagging (ISL tagging) is to interconnect multiple switches and to keep VLAN information as it goes through various switches. Incorrect Answers: A, B, and C. This are not the purposed for frame tagging. Steve McQuerry. Interconnecting Cisco Network Devices. (Cisco Press: 2000) pages 186 – 187.
Q.9 You company has decided to use RIP version 1 as the routing on a Cisco router. What is the command to enable rip as the routing protocol on the company’s router? Answer: Router rip Explanation: The key characteristics of RIP include: it is a distance vector protocol, hop count is the metric used for path selection, it maximum allowable hop count is 15, it broadcasts it entire routing table every 30 seconds by default and it can be load balanced as many as six equal cost paths (4 paths are the default). To configure RIP not only does the router rip command need to be inputted but also it must be followed by the network command. The network command must be issued for each directly connected network. 640-607 8 21certify.com Steve McQuerry. Interconnecting Cisco Network Devices. (Cisco Press: 2000) pages 278-279.
Q.10 Your company has decided to use IP RIP version 1 as the routing protocol. Which of the following are the commands you can use to configure IP RIP version 1 on your router? A. Router RIP network 172.16.1.0 network 10.1.0.1 B. Router RIP network 172.16.0.0 network 10.0.0.0 C. Router RIP network 172.16.1.0 172.16.1.1 network 10.1.0.0 10.1.1.1 D. Router RIP network 172.16.1.0 265.255.255.0 Network 10.1.0.0 255.255.0.0 Answer: B. Explanation: To enable RIP version 1 not only does the router rip command need to be used but also it must be followed by the network command. The network command must be issued for each directly connected network. The network command must be followed by a valid network address. Incorrect Answers: A: Is this series of commands the network 10.1.0.1 is not a valid command. C: If 4 networks are directly connected they must have their own network command. D: There is no need to include a subnet mask with a network command. Steve McQuerry. Interconnecting Cisco Network Devices. (Cisco Press: 2000) pages 278-9.
Q.11 Spanning-Tree was originally developed by DEC. What is the reason Spanning-Tree is used in a switched LAN? A. To provide a mechanism for network monitoring in switched environments. B. To prevent routing loops in networks with redundant paths. C. To prevent routing switching loops in networks with redundant switched paths. D. To manage, the addition, deletion, and naming of VLANs across multiple switches. E. To segment a network into multiple collision domains. 640-607 9 21certify.com Answer: B. Explanation: The purpose of the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is to provide for redundant paths within a switched environment while ensuring that there is a loop free network. This is done as the redundant ports are blocked. Incorrect Answers: A. STP does not provide mechanism to monitor a switched network. C. Loops are not referred to as “routing switching loops”. D. STP is not used for VLAN management. E. Switches create multiple collisions domains and not STP. Steve McQuerry. Interconnecting Cisco Network Devices. (Cisco Press: 2000) pages 155-156.
Q.12 Switches have three primary modes to handle frame switching. Which two statements about the store and forward switching method are true? (Choose two) A. Latency remains constant regardless of frame size. B. Latency through the switch varies with frame length. C. The switch receives the complete frame before beginning to forward it. D. The switch checks the destination address as soon as it receives the header and begins forwarding the frame immediately. Answer B, C. Explanation: In store and forward mode, the switch must receive the complete frame before forwarding takes place. The destination and source addresses are read, the cyclic redundancy check (CRC) is performed, relevant filters are applied, and the frame is forwarded. If the CRC is bad, the frame is discarded. The latency (or delay) through the switch varies with frame length. Incorrect Answers: A: Is wrong because the latency changes with the frame size. D: Is wrong because it waits for the complete name and not merely the destination address. Steve McQuerry. Interconnecting Cisco Network Devices. (Cisco Press: 2000) page 162.
Q.13 Acme Ltd. consists of three campuses: North, Main and South. They have purchased three 2501 routers.Each router has one Ethernet interface and two serial interfaces. Each campus is connected serially to its neighbor. The routers have been working properly. The connection between North and Main ceases operation one day and an unauthorized entry is detected on the South router. Determine the problem and restore connectivity. The network has been configured with the 640-607 10 21certify.com following characteristics: The routers are named North, Main, South. All networks have the default subnet mask. RIP is the routing protocol. The clocking signal is provided on the serial 0 interface. Lab 1 Name: North E0: 192.168.159.1 S0: 192.168.75.1 Secret password : testk Lab 2 Name: Main E0: 192.168.112.1 S0: 192.168.201.1 S1: 192.168.75.2 Secret password : testk Lab 3 Name: South E0: 192.168.65.1 S1: 192.168.201.2 Secret password : testk Start by clicking on host that is connected to the router you want to configure. Answer Lab 1: enable config terminal hostname North enable secret testk interface ethernet 0 ip address 192.168.159.1 255.255.255.0 no shutdown exit interface serial 0 ip address 192.168.75.1 255.255.255.0 clock rate 64000 no shutdown exit router rip network 192.168.159.0 network 192.168.75.0 ^z copy running-config startup-config Explanation: 640-607 11 21certify.com You don't need to make full configuration because all routers have already been configured but they have some mistakes. Your task is to find these mistakes and fix them. Maybe the easy way is to remember full config, but better is to understand the right configuration. You need to add two networks for Lab 1 as we only have to add the networks we have on the router. For LAB 2 we add three networks, and for LAB 3 we add two networks. Wendell Odom. Cisco CCNA Exam #640-507 Certification Guide. (Cisco Press: 2000) pages 374-403. 640-607 12 21certify.com Note: If you are unsure of the testing environment, try the following address: http://www.cisco.com/warp/public/10/wwtraining/certprog/testing/simulation/demo_si m.html ****************************** Answer Lab 2: enable config terminal hostname Main enable secret testk interface ethernet 0 ip address 192.168.112.1 255.255.255.0 no shutdown exit interface serial 0 ip address 192.168.201.1 255.255.255.0 clock rate 64000 640-607 13 21certify.com no shutdown exit interface serial 1 ip address 192.168.75.2 255.255.255.0 no shutdown exit router rip network 192.168.75.0 network 192.168.112.0 network 192.168.201.0^z copy running-config startup-config Explanation: Very similar to Lab 1. We have two serial interfaces in lab 2 to configure. We must also make sure that we enable RIP on all three interfaces with the network command. ************************************** Answer Lab 3: 640-607 14 21certify.com enable config terminal hostname South enable secret testk interface ethernet 0 ip address 192.168.65.1 255.255.255.0 no shutdown exit interface serial 1 ip address 192.168.201.2 255.255.255.0 no shutdown exit router rip network 192.168.201.0 network 192.168.65.0 ^z copy running-config startup-config Explanation: Very similar to Lab 1 and Lab 2. Lab C only has one serial interface, serial1.
Q.14 Which layer of the OSI model ensures reliable end-to-end delivery of data? A. Application B. Presentation C. Session D. Transport E. Network Answer: D Explanation: The Transport Layer, Layer 4, of the OSI reference model provide to methods of end-to-end delivery of data. These methods of delivery are reliable and unreliable. TCP is a reliable method and UDP is unreliable. Incorrect Answers: A. The Application Layer is best described as the user interface. This is how users/applications access 640-607 15 21certify.com protocols to access a network. B. The Presentation Layer controls how data is presented and also provides other services such as encryption. C. The Transport Layer is in charge of communication management (including establishing and terminating of communication). E. The Network Layer is responsible for an addressing scheme so that routers can determine a path. Steve McQuerry. Interconnecting Cisco Network Devices. (Cisco Press: 2000) pages 10 – 30.
Q.15 You company uses a switch in the training department. You need to be able to make changes to this switch remotely so that you can allow different classrooms to have access to the Internet as needed. What do you have to configure on this switch so that you can remotely make these changes? (Choose two.) A. The switch name must match the workgroup name of the local network. B. The switch must be configured with an IP address and default gateway. C. The remote workstations must have access to the VSM of the switch. D. CDP must be enabled on the switch so that other devices on the network can locate it. Answer: B, C Explanation: To remotely configure a switch you will need to use the Visual Switch Manager (VSM). In order VSM to function properly the switch will require an IP address and network connectivity. Remote locations must use a web browser to connect to VSM. Incorrect Answers: A. VSM does not require that the switch name match the local workgroup name. D. CDP is not required for VSM but it is used as an information-gathering tool. Steve McQuerry. Interconnecting Cisco Network Devices. (Cisco Press: 2000) pages 165 and 114.
Q.16 What one of the following is an example of a layer 2 MAC address? A. 192.201.63.251 B. 19-22-01-63-25 C. 0000.1234.FEG 640-607 16 21certify.com D. 00-00-12-34-FE-AA Answer: D. Explanation: MAC address is a uniquely assigned address to each device on the network. The MAC address is 48 bits in length and is expressed as hexadecimal digit. The first 6 digits specify the manufacturer ID and the remaining 6 are unique to host. No two MAC addresses can be same. In addition MAC addresses are usually comprised of 6 pairs, each pair can be two number, two letters or a combination of a number and a letter. Incorrect Answers: A: 192.201.63.251 contains to many number and is an IP address. B: There only 6 pair combinations in 19-22-01-63-25. C: 0000.1234.FEG is short one letter or one number. Steve McQuerry. Interconnecting Cisco Network Devices. (Cisco Press: 2000) page 20.
Q.17 You issue the command show ip route which of the following correctly describes the codes displayed in your route table after you issue this command? (Choose two.) A. I-Indicates a route was learned through an internal protocol. B. S-Indicates a route was learned through static command. C. R-Indicates a route was learned through RIP. D. S-Indicates a route was learned through a serial port. E. R-Indicates a route was learned through a reliable port. Answer: B, C Explanation: B: S stands for static. C: R stands for RIP. Incorrect Answers A: I stands for a route learned through IGRP. D: S stands for static. E: R stands for RIP. 640-607 17 21certify.com Steve McQuerry. Interconnecting Cisco Network Devices. (Cisco Press: 2000) pages 280 – 281.
Q.18 What can you use to connect a user’s pc directly to a router? A. Connect the PC's COM port to the router's console port using a straight-through cable. B. Connect the PC's COM port to the router's console port using a crossover cable. C. Connect the PC's COM port to the router's Ethernet port using a straight-through cable. D. Connect the PC's Ethernet port to the router's Ethernet port using a crossover cable. E. Connect the PC's Ethernet port to the router's Ethernet port using a rollover cable. F. Connect the PC's Ethernet port to the router's Ethernet port using a straight-through cable. Answer: D. Explanation: To connect the PC directly to the router we can use a cross-over RJ-45 cable and connect the cable to an Ethernet port on the router and to the Network adapter on the PC. Incorrect Answers A, B: In order to connect to the console port of the router a rollover cable must be used. C: To connect to an Ethernet port on the router we must use a network adapter on the PC. E: A rollover cable can be used to connect a PC to the console port, not an Ethernet port, on the router. Furthermore, one extra adapter would also be required. F: A crossover cable must be used to directly connect a PC to a router. Steve McQuerry. Interconnecting Cisco Network Devices. (Cisco Press: 2000) pages 51 – 52.
Q.19 What are good reasons for using layer two switches? (Choose two) A. To reduce collisions. B. To increase collisions. C. To increase the number of collision domains. D. To decrease the number of collision domains. E. To decrease the number of broadcast domains. Answer: A, C. Explanation: A switch creates multiple collision domains, and reduces the number of nodes in the domain. This results in less contention and interference which in turn reduces the number of collisions. Incorrect Answers: B: Switches are design to REDUCE collisions and not increase them. D: When a switch segments a network it increase the number of domain and it does not reduce them. 640-607 18 21certify.com E: A switch can neither increase nor decreases the broadcast domains. Steve McQuerry. Interconnecting Cisco Network Devices. (Cisco Press: 2000) pages 30-31.
Q.20 Full-duplex gives you the ability to send and receive data at the same time. Which of the following Ethernet standards can operate in full-duplex mode? (Choose two.) A. 10Base2 B. 10Base5 C. 10BaseT D. 100BaseT Answer: C, D Explanation: In order for full duplex transmissions to be supported the “cable” requires a means by which to receive and send transmissions at the same time. This is achieved through the use of twisted pairs. Both 10BaseT and 100BaseT utilize twisted pairs. Incorrect Answers A, B: Coaxial cable, either Thicknet (10Base5) or Thinnet (10Base2) only support one single transmission. If there is more than one transmission then a collision will occur. Reference: Steve McQuerry. Interconnecting Cisco Network Devices. (Cisco Press: 2000) pages 15 – 16, and 164.
Q.21 Which of the following devices support Full Duplex Ethernet ? (Choose two.) A. Switch to host. B. Switch to switch. C. Hub to hub. D. Switch to hub. E. Hub to host. Answer: A, B Explanation: Devices that are connected to switches can communicate in full duplex mode. This includes switched that are connected to other switches. 640-607 19 21certify.com Incorrect Answers: C, D, and E. Hubs can only communicate in half duplex mode (CSMA/CD). Therefore none of these options are correct. Steve McQuerry. Interconnecting Cisco Network Devices. (Cisco Press: 2000) pages 164 – 165.
Q.22 Which three are examples of the functions of connection oriented services? (Choose three) A. Connection parameters are synchronized. B. Any loss or duplication of packets can be corrected. C. The data packet is independently routed and the service does not guarantee the packet will be processed in order. D. A data communication path is established between the requesting entity and the peer device on the remote end system. Answer: A, B, D. Explanation: In order to establish a connection-orientated service, the connection must first be established. An example of this would the TCP/IP suites use of the three-way handshake. The sending and receiving of synchronization and acknowledgment packets between the sending system and the receiving system accomplish a three-way handshake. Errors can be corrected when the sender does not receive an acknowledgment, within a specified amount of time, from the receiving system the packet will be resent. Incorrect Answers: C: Due to the acknowledgement of packets, the order that packets are received is ensured. Steve McQuerry. Interconnecting Cisco Network Devices. (Cisco Press: 2000) pages 29-30.
Q.23 What is the correct order of PDUs in data encapsulation? A. Data, Frame, Packet, Segment, Bit B. Data, Frame, Segment, Packet, Bit C. Data, Packet, Frame, Segment, Bit D. Data, Packet, Segment, Frame, Bit E. Data, Segment, Frame, Packet, Bit F. Data, Segment, Packet, Frame, Bit 640-607 20 21certify.com Answer: F Explanation: Encapsulation steps Step 1: The application creates the data Step 2: The transport layer segments the data. Step 3: The network layer puts the data into packets. Step 4: The data link layer puts data into frames. Step 5: The physical layer transmits the bits. Reference: Wendell Odom. Cisco CCNA Exam #640-607 Certification Guide. (Cisco Press: 2002) page 96.
Q.24 If you take a dotted-decimal class A IP address such as 10.0.0.1 and convert the first octet to binary.Which of the following is the correct bit pattern for the first octet? A. 0xxxxxxx B. 10xxxxxx C. 110xxxxx D. 1110xxxx E. 11110xxx Answer: A Explanation: The range for Class A address is 1 to 126. 10 convert into binary is 00001010. The only answer that follows this pattern is A. Incorrect Answers: B. With a 1 in the first bit of the binary number the value will be at least 128. 128 is above the range of Class A addresses. C. With ones in the first 2 bits the value for the octet will need to be 192 or greater. This is outside the range of Class A addresses. D. With ones in the first 3 bits the value for the octet will need to be 224 or greater. This is outside the range of Class A addresses. E. With ones in the first 4 bits the value for the octet will need to be 240 or greater. This is outside the range of Class A addresses. Steve McQuerry. Interconnecting Cisco Network Devices. (Cisco Press: 2000) pages 221 – 223.
Q.25 Which of the following statements about a reliable connection oriented data transfer are true? 640-607 21 21certify.com (Choose two) A. Recipients acknowledge receipt of data. B. When buffers are filled to capacity, datagrams are discarded and not re transmitted. C. Windows are used to control the amount in outstanding acknowledged data segments. D. If the segments timer expires between receipt of an acknowledgement the sender drops the connection. E. The receiving device waits for acknowledgements from the sending device before accepting more data segments. Answer: A, C. Explanation: Connection orientated protocols, such as TCP, communication use acknowledgement of packets. This is how error control is possible. To govern the flow of data between devices, TCP uses a flow control mechanism. The receiving TCP reports a “window” to the sending TCP. This window specifies the number of octets, starting with the acknowledgment number, that a receiving TCP is currently prepare to receive. TCP windows sizes are variable during the lifetime of the connection. Each acknowledgment contains a window advertisement that indicates how many bytes the receiver can accept. TCP also maintains a congestion control window that is normally the size as the receiver’s window but is cut in half when a segment is lost (for example, there is congestion). This approach permits the window to be expanded or contracted as necessary to manage buffer space and processing. Incorrect Answers: B: With connection orientate protocols packet delivery is guaranteed. Packet will not be dropped. Flow control (windowing) addresses the buffer issue. D: If the sending system does not receive an acknowledgement from the receiving system then the packet will be resent. E: The receiving device sends the acknowledgement of packets and this states how much data the receiving device can receive. Steve McQuerry. Interconnecting Cisco Network Devices. (Cisco Press: 2000) pages 213-4.
Q.26 Which two statements are valid? (Choose two.) A. Full-duplex Ethernet consists of a shared broadcast domain, while half-duplex Ethernet consists of a private broadcast domain. B. Full-duplex Ethernet is collision free, while half-duplex Ethernet is subject to collisions. C. Full-duplex Ethernet provides higher throughput than half-duplex Ethernet of the same bandwidth. D. Full-duplex Ethernet provides lower throughput than half-duplex Ethernet of the same bandwidth. E. Full-duplex Ethernet consists of a shared cable segment while half-duplex Ethernet provides a point-to-point link. Answer: B, C Explanation: Full-duplex involves only two participants. Both can transmit 640-607 22 21certify.com simultaneously. Half-duplex, on the other hand, can have many participants on the same network segment. Only one be transmitting at a time. B: Using Full-Duplex only two participants ensures that there can be no collisions. Half-duplex must use CSMA/CD to handle the collisions. C: Full-duplex mode is faster than half-duplex. Incorrect Answers A: All nodes on a half-duplex Ethernet segment share the same broadcast domain. D: The opposite is true. E: The opposite is true. Steve McQuerry. Interconnecting Cisco Network Devices. (Cisco Press: 2000) pages 164 – 165.
Q.27 What is the network address for a host with the IP address 123.200.8.68/28? A. 123.200.8.0 B. 1231.200.8.32 C. 123.200.8.64 D. 123.200.8.65 E. 123.200.8.31 F. 123.200.8.1 Answer: C Explanation: In a network with 28 network bits only the last four bits are used for the hosts. We write the 4th octet in binary: 68 decimal = 01000100 binary (64+4) We have to clear all host bits: 01000000 binary = 64 decimal The network part is 123.200.8.64. Incorrect Answers: A. For the network to be represented as 123.200.8 then the IP address would need a /24 at the end. In this case /28 was used. B, D, E, and F. In these cases with the IP address provided these options are impossible. 640-607 23 21certify.com Steve McQuerry. Interconnecting Cisco Network Devices. (Cisco Press: 2000) pages 227 – 232.
Q.28 How does a layer two device such as a bridge or switch function? A. It maintains a table of the IP address of the host connected to its internet segment B. It passes packets outside of its network segment if its IP address cannot be found on its table. C. It looks up the frames destination in its address table and sends the frame towards the destination. D. It maintains the table of the data link layer and network layer addresses for the host connected to its network segment. Answer: C. Explanation: A transparent bridge stores information in memory in what is called a “forwarding table”. The forwarding table lists each end station (from which the bridge has heard a frame within a particular time period) and the segment on which it resides. When a bridge hears a frame on the network, it views the destination address and compares it to the forwarding table to determine whether to filter, flood or copy the frame into another segment. Incorrect Answers: A: The forwarding table does not contain a list of IP address. Rather it contains a list of devices that it is connect to and on which segment each device resides. B: If the destination device is unknown to the bridge, the bridge forwards the frame to all segments except the one on which it was received. This process is known as flooding. D: The device maintains a list of the data link layer addresses for host connected to its network segment. Steve McQuerry. Interconnecting Cisco Network Devices. (Cisco Press: 2000) page 22.
Q.29 Which of the following are reasons to use VLANs? (Choose three.) A. They increase the size of collision domains. B. They allow logical grouping of users by function. C. They enhance network security. D. They increase the size of broadcast domains while decreasing the number of broadcast domains. E. They increase the number of broadcasts domain while decreasing their size. F. The simplify switch administration. Answer: B, C, E Explanation: 640-607 24 21certify.com B: Users can logically be grouped into VLAN. C: By grouping users into different VLANs, a secure VLAN can be created. Only some users could be allowed to access the secure VLAN. This improves security. E: Each separate VLAN is a separate broadcast domain. Creating VLAN increase the number of broadcast domains and decrease the size of each broadcast domain. Incorrect Answers A: The size of the collision domain decreases by the use of VLANs. D: The opposite is true. F: VLANs must be configured so VLANs increase the switch administration. Steve McQuerry. Interconnecting Cisco Network Devices. (Cisco Press: 2000) pages 179 – 182.
Q.30 You need to segment your network which of the following hardware devices can you use to segment your network? (Choose three.) A. Hub B. Repeater C. Switch D. Bridge E. Router F. Media converter Answer: C, D, E Explanation: C: A switch is able to segment the network at the data link layer. D: A bridge is able to segment the network at the data link layer. E: A router is able to segment the network at the network layer. Incorrect Answers A: A hub regenerates and/or redistributes signal and work at physical layer of the OSI model and is unable to segment the network. B: A repeater only regenerates the signal and works at physical layer of the OSI model and is unable to segment the network. F: Media converter only connects dissimilar media, and connects them into a single segment. Steve McQuerry. Interconnecting Cisco Network Devices. (Cisco Press: 2000) pages 16 – 17. 640-607 25 21certify.com
Q.31 Your company is concerned about Security on your network. Each department has its own file server and the company also has an enterprise server that is shared by all departments. The accounting department is concerned about the accounting information being accessible from the other departments. What can you as the network administrator use to control the information so that it’s not being passed between the departments? A. Bridge between management and sites. B. Routers to provide the most secure segmentation. C. A hub to provide the ease of management and a satisfactory alternative for the network security. D. An Ethernet switch to secure separation through programming the access list of each port of the switch. Answer: B. Explanation: Routers provide better separation, dividing the segments into both separate collision and broadcast domains, and provide access lists for controlling security. Incorrect Answers: A, C, D: Are Layer 2 devices, which breaks up the collision domains, but is still one broadcast domain. Security and filtering within these devices are primitive (although switching is a little more advanced). Any filtering that can be done at layer 2 is primitive and requires a lot of administrative effort. Steve McQuerry. Interconnecting Cisco Network Devices. (Cisco Press: 2000) pages 18-28.
Q.32 What are the advantages of using the OSI layered network model? (Choose three.) A. Allows multiple-vendor development through standardization of network components. B. Creates a list of communication rules that all companies must implement to get onto the Internet. C. Allows various types of network hardware and software to communicate. D. Prevents changes in one layer from affecting other layers, so it does not hamper development. E. Allows companies to develop proprietary interfaces. Answer: A, C, D Explanation: A: The OSI model promotes standardization. C: The layered approach allows various types of network hardware and software to communicate. D: Each layer should be a separate black box. A change in one layer would not impact other layers. Incorrect Answers B: The OSI model does not contain standardization of applications in this way. 640-607 26 21certify.com E: Proprietary interfaces do not fit within the OSI model. Steve McQuerry. Interconnecting Cisco Network Devices. (Cisco Press: 2000) pages 10 – 11.
Q.33 You have a leased line configured at a small office that connects to the corporate office. You company would also like to have a backup incase the lease line goes down. Which WAN service would you most likely choose to backup the leased line? A. Frame relay with SVC B. Dedicated serial line C. ISDN with DDR D. ATM Answer: C Explanation: ISDN is a low-cost backup solution that only is used when it is needed. DDR (dial-on-demand) dials up the remote site when traffic needs to be transmitted. Incorrect Answers A: Frame Relay is a high-performance solution and would be a costly backup solution. B: There is no need to use a dedicated connection. We only need to use the connection if the main line goes down. D: ATM is a high-performance solution and would be a costly backup. Steve McQuerry. Interconnecting Cisco Network Devices. (Cisco Press: 2000) pages 368 – 373 and 387 –389.
Q.34 What was one of the most important reasons the International Organization for Standardization released the OSI model? A. Users could access network server faster. B. Different vendor’s networks could work with each other. C. The industry could create a standard for how computers work. D. The network administrator could increase the overall speed of their network. Answer: B. Explanation: The ISO model separated the various functions so that a vendor did not have to write an entire stack. One vendor could write device drivers for their device, and not worry about higher layers, and the work can be contained and modularized. This also speeds up the process of bringing a product to market, as it minimizes code that a vendor needs to write. 640-607 27 21certify.com Incorrect Answers: A: The ISO model does not make things faster; overall they might slow things down a bit because of the overhead of passing data through the layers. C: This ISO model is for networking, not computer functions. D: The ISO model does not provide any speed boost. Steve McQuerry. Interconnecting Cisco Network Devices. (Cisco Press: 2000) pages 10-12.
Q.35 Which channels are used by ISDN BRI? A. 2d+b B. 23d+b C. 2b+d D. 23b+d Answer: C Explanation: ISDN BRI has two Bearer Channels (B) and a Signaling channel (D). Reference: Cisco CCNA Exam #640-607 Certification Guide. (Cisco Press: 2002) page 549.
Q.36 Access-list 122 permit ip 131.107.30.0 0.0.0.255 any You apply the access-list above. Which is the effect? A. Permit all packets matching the first three octets of the source address to all destinations. B. Permit all packets matching the last of the destination address and accept all source address. C. Permit all packets from the third subnet of the network address to all destinations. D. Permit all packets matching the host bits in the source address to all destinations. E. Permit all packets to destination matching the first three octets in the destination address. Answer: A Explanation: This is an extended access list that permits source packets matching the 640-607 28 21certify.com first three octets of the 131.107.30.0 address. Furthermore, the any keyword specifies that all destinations will be accepted. Note: Syntax for an extended access list access-list access-list-number {deny | permit} protocol source source-wildcard destination destination-wildcard [precedence precedence] [tos tos] Incorrect Answers B: The source-wildcard is specified first before the destination wildcard. C: All source addresses matching the first three octets of 131.107.30.0 will be permitted. D: The mask used in access-list does not work as a subnet masks. A 0.0.0.255 access-list mask matches the first three octets, not the last “host” octet. E: The first three octets in the source, not destination, address must match. All destination addresses are allowed with the any keyword. Steve McQuerry. Interconnecting Cisco Network Devices. (Cisco Press: 2000) pages 304 – 306.
Q.37 Using a class C address range 192.168.21.12 your network needs twenty-eight subnets. Which subnet mask should you use? A. 255.255.0.28 B. 255.255.255.0 C. 255.255.255.28 D. 255.255.255.248 E. 255.255.255.252 Answer: D Explanation: We need to expand the class C subnet mask, and based on the calculation above, the last octet is divided into 5 bits network, 3 bits host, which is 248. By using 5 bits of subnetting for the network subnet, you leave 3 bits for hosts. So, the value is 128+64+32+16+8 = 248 A quick way to determine the required subnet mask for Class C addresses you can also use the table below: (Please note: in this case as you need 28 subnets you need to use the 255.255.255.248 subnet. Always pick the subnet mask that supports your requirements. This may mean you waste subnets and hosts but you will meet your requirements.) 640-607 29 21certify.com NUMBER OF BITS SUBNET MASK NUMBER OF SUBNETS NUMBER OF HOSTS 2 255.255.255.192 2 62 3 255.255.255.224 6 30 4 255.255.255.240 14 14 5 255.255.255.248 30 6 6 255.255.255.252 62 2 Incorrect Answers: A and C: It is not even a valid subnet mask, a valid subnet mask is a continuous string of one bits, then followed by a continuous string of zero bits. Answer A and C both break this rule. Leading the way in IT testing and certification tools, www.21certify.com - 3 0 - B: This is a full Class C subnet mask, and only provides for ONE network, and we need 28. E: This gives us 6 bits of network, and the problem calls for 5. Steve McQuerry. Interconnecting Cisco Network Devices. (Cisco Press: 2000) pages 228 – 236.
Q.38 Cisco supports three types of switching modes on switches. Which mode of switching can have a variable latency through the switch? A. Store-and-forward. B. Cut-through. C. Fragment-free. Answer: A There are 3 primary operating modes that are used for frame switching. These modes are sore-and-forward, cut-through and fragment free. When store-and-forward is used the switch must receive the whole frame before it can be forwarded. This makes the latency time variable. Reference: Steve McQuerry. Interconnecting Cisco Network Devices. (Cisco Press: 2000) pages 162-163. Incorrect answers: 640-607 30 21certify.com B: During a cut-through operation, the switch forwards the frame once it receives the Destination Address. This keeps the latency constant. C: The fragment-free mode reads only the first 64 bytes before forwarding the frame. This makes the latency time practically constant.
Q.39 Your company has purchased some Cisco routers from an online auction. You need to make a backup copy of the IOS and store it on a TFTP server. Which of the following should be done prior to copying the IOS image to a TFTP server? (Choose three.) A. Make sure that the network server can be accessed. B. Check that the authentication for access is set. C. Ensure that the network server has adequate space for the code image. D. Verify any file naming and path requirements. E. Make sure that the server can load and run the bootstrap code. Answer: A, C, D Explanation: A: The TFTP server must be accessible from the router. C: The TFTP server must be able to store the IOS image. D: The file naming convention and the path of the TFTP server must be checked. Incorrect Answers B: TFTP does not use authentication. E: The TFTP server does not have to boot IOS. It can use any operating system with network functionality. Steve McQuerry. Interconnecting Cisco Network Devices. (Cisco Press: 2000) pages 132 – 134.
Q.40 Which of the following correctly identifies switched and routed data flow? A. Switches create a single collision domain and a single broadcast domain. Routers provide separate broadcast domains. B. Switches create separate collision domains but a single broadcast domain. Routers provide separate broadcast domains. C. Switches create a single collision domain and a separate broadcast domain. Router provides a separate broadcast domain as well. D. Switches create separate collision domains and separate broadcast domains. Routers provide separate collision domains. 640-607 31 21certify.com Answer: B Explanation: Switches break up the collision domains, but it is still a single broadcast domain. Routers also create separate collision domains, but also separate broadcast domains, as routers usually do not pass broadcast traffic. Incorrect Answers: A: Switches create multiple collision domains. C: Switches maintain one broadcast domain, and separate/multiple collision domains. D: Switches maintain one broadcast domain. Steve McQuerry. Interconnecting Cisco Network Devices. (Cisco Press: 2000) pages 30-31.
Q.41 Your boss is concerned about routing loops with the use of distance vector routing protocols such as RIP and IGRP in your network you would like to ensure him that there are mechanisms used to prevent the possibility of a routing loop. Which of the following are examples of this mechanism? (Choose two.) A. Link-state advertisement (LSA) B. Spanning Tree Protocol. C. Shortest path first tree. D. Split horizon. E. Hold-down timers. Answer: D, E Explanation: RIP and IGRP are distance vector routing protocols. RIP and IGRP use holddown counters and split horizon to prevent route looping. Note: Hold-downs are used to prevent regular update messages from inappropriately reinstating a route that might have gone bad. Split horizons derive from the premise that it is never useful to send information about a route back in the direction from which it came. Incorrect Answers A: Link-state routing protocols use LSAs. However, LSAs are not used by distance vector routing protocols like RIP or IGRP. B, C: The spanning tree protocol and the shortest path first tree is used by Layer 3 routing protocol such as Enhanced IGRP or OSPF, not by RIP or IGRP. Steve McQuerry. Interconnecting Cisco Network Devices. (Cisco Press: 2000) pages 266 – 268.
Q.43 You just finished installing a new operating system on a computer located in the accounting department. You would like to verify the network configuration from the new computer so you establish FTP connection to a remote TFTP server. Which layer of the OSI model did you use for this operation? 640-607 32 21certify.com A. Application B. Presentation C. Session D. Transport E. Data link F. Internet Answer: A Explanation: The Application layer is the layer at which users use protocols to achieve access to the network. Using FTP to connect to a TFTP server is an excellent example. Incorrect Answers B. The presentation layer is focused on ensuring that data is readable once it has crossed the network. C. The session layer of the OSI model is responsible for communication. That is, the establishment, management, and ending of communication. D. The transport layer is focused on providing the establishment guidelines of communication. E. The data link layer provides the details on where the data is coming from and where it is going. F. The internet layer is not a layer of the OSI Model. It is a layer in the TCP/IP model that corresponds to the network layer of the OSI model. Steve McQuerry. Interconnecting Cisco Network Devices. (Cisco Press: 2000) pages 10 – 18.
Q.44 Match the OSI layer with the appropriate description. 640-607 33 21certify.com 640-607 34 21certify.com Explanation: The transport layer assembles the packets into data, and prepares the data for the session layer above. The Network layer determines the route of moving data. Remember the Network layer is layer 3, and routers work on layer 3. The network layer includes routing functions, and keep this in mind when the question says determines the best way to move data. On the data link layer, the actual transmission occurs. The physical layer does not modify the data and package it, not is involved with addressing and routing, so it does not apply. The session layer also does not modify data or determine routes or transmit data, so it would not apply to any of the above. Steve McQuerry. Interconnecting Cisco Network Devices. (Cisco Press: 2000) pages 12-13.
Q.45 You have installed a new PC to your access layer switch. You have configured the IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS settings. You have verified that the information you have entered is correct and that the proper cable was used however this PC is unable to access devices that are connected to the same switch. What is the likely cause of this problem? 640-607 35 21certify.com A. The router lacks a routing table entry for the new host. B. The host switch port is assigned to the incorrect VLAN. C. The host MAC address is incorrectly configured. D. A VTP instance for the new host has not been installed. Answer: B Explanation: In order for a host to access a switch the host switch port must be configured for the correct VLAN. By default VLAN 1 is configured for the ports. Incorrect Answers A: Hosts do not need route entries at the router. C: This would cause this behavior. D: There is no such ting as VTP instance. Steve McQuerry. Interconnecting Cisco Network Devices. (Cisco Press: 2000) pages 193 – 198.
Q.46 Cisco supports three different LMI types for Frame Relay. Which of the following are the type LMI types? (Choose three.) A. IETF B. Q931 C. Q933A D. IEEE E. CISCO F. ANSI Answer: C, E, and F Explanation: The Supported LMI Types are cisco (the default), ansi, and q933a. Steve McQuerry. Interconnecting Cisco Network Devices. (Cisco Press: 2000) pages 415 – 416.
Q.47 Which hardware device enables high-speed data exchange on a LAN? A. Hub B. Bridge C. Switch D. Repeater 640-607 36 21certify.com Answer: C Explanation: A switch can be used to gain high-speed data transfer between segments, especially when cut through is used. The internals of the switch are specifically designed for high-speed transfer, even with high volumes. Incorrect Answers: A: A hub causes the segment to be shared, and collisions slow down the segment. A hub does not cause segmentation. B: A bridge usually separates a small amount of segments and with large amounts of data transfer across the bridge; the bridge can become a bottleneck. D: A repeater extends the distance of the segment by amplifying electrical signals, but does not segment the LAN. Steve McQuerry. Interconnecting Cisco Network Devices. (Cisco Press: 2000) pages 32-38.
Q.48 To perform password recovery on a Cisco router you have to modify which of the following? (Choose two.) A. Nvram B. Configuration register C. Boot flash D. Cmos E. Flash Answer: A, B Explanation: During the password recovery procedure NVRAM and the configuration register are resetted. Reference: Password Recovery Procedure http://www.cisco.com/warp/public/474/pswdrec_2500.html
Q.49 You just purchased a brand new Cisco 2621 router. By default when the router boots which search sequence does it use to locate the IOS software? A. Flash, TFTP server, ROM B. NVRAM, TFTP server, ROM C. ROM, Flash, TFTP server D. ROM, NVRAM, TFTP server Answer: A Explanation: First FLASH is used to load the IOS image. If that fails, the IOS image is loaded from a TFTP server. It that fails as well then a minimal IOS is loaded from ROM. 640-607 37 21certify.com Incorrect Answers B: NVRAM is used to store configuration data, not IOS images. C, D: Only if there is no IOS image in Flash memory or at FTP server, a basic version of IOS loaded from ROM.
Q.50 You would like the router to look in NVRAM upon boot up. Which one of the following would be the correct value for the configuration register? A. 0x42 B. 0x2102 C. 0x001 D. 0x2101 Answer: B Explanation: The factory-default setting for the configuration register is 0x2102. This indicates that the router should attempt to load an IOS image from Flash memory and load the startup configuration. Flash memory is also known as NVRAM. Steve McQuerry. Interconnecting Cisco Network Devices. (Cisco Press: 2000) pages 126 – 128.
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